I am interested in whether, if an official acted within the scope of his authority, but his actions resulted in losses for the state due to a penalty for untimely returned value-added tax, can this be qualified as abuse of office?
I am interested in whether, if an official acted within the scope of his authority, but his actions resulted in losses for the state due to a penalty for untimely returned value-added tax, can this be qualified as abuse of office?